Systems Review Part 2

Report
Study Guide
(Power Train, Electrical, Fuel Systems, and Weight and Balance)
1. State the purpose of the power train system?
A. Provides drive for the tail rotor
B. Supports the rotor head
C. Provides a means of transmitting engine power to the main and tail rotor
systems
D. All of the above
2. State the purpose of the freewheeling
unit/sprag clutch assembly?
A. It prevents main drive shaft failure by acting as a freewheeling unit when the
rotor is subject to high “G”s
B. The sprag clutch, in the freewheeling unit, provides a disconnect from the
engine enabling autorotational forces to drive the transmission, tail rotor, and
all transmission mounted accessories in the event of an engine failure
C. The sprag clutch transfers transmission RPM (inflow of air through the rotor
system) to the freewheeling unit to drive the tail rotor
D. B and C
3. What is the lubrication source for the
freewheeling unit?
A. The freewheeling unit is lubricated by the engine
B. The freewheeling unit is lubricated by the hydraulic to oil heat exchanger
behind the transmission
C. The freewheeling unit is a dry system thus it uses ambient air to cool down
D. The freewheeling unit is lubricated by transmission oil
4. Does the freewheeling unit have a chip
detection capability?
A. No, the chip detector is not electrically wired for a “Caution Light” indication
in the cockpit, thus is not consider a chip detection system
B. Yes, but the chip detector is not electrically wired for a “Caution Light”
indication in the cockpit
C. There is no chip detector installed in the freewheeling unit (no gears)
D. Yes, the chip detector is electrically wire to the cockpit for a “Caution Light”
indication to alert the pilot
5. What does the main drive shaft connect ?
A. It is a flexible coupling that connects the freewheeling unit to the transmission
input drive
B. It connects the transmission to the rotor head
C. It connects the #5 drive shaft to the tail rotor gear box
D. None of the above
6. Why is the main drive shaft a flexible coupling?
A. Flexible is better
B. The engine is going to provide the transmission with different kinds of power
settings, thus the need for a flexible and adaptable coupling is required
C. The movement between the transmission (a floating pylon mount) and the
freewheeling unit mounted on the engine (a rigid mount) requires a flexible
coupling
D. It must be flexible because of the high vibration from the tail rotor that are
transmitted back to the main rotor during autorotation
7. In the event of an engine failure, what drives
the tail rotor in autorotation?
A. The main drive shaft transfers transmission RPM (inflow of air through the
rotor system) to the freewheeling unit and crosswinds provide drive to the tail
rotor
B. The main drive shaft transfers transmission RPM (inflow of air through the
rotor system) to the freewheeling unit to drive the tail rotor
C. The only thing that drives the tail rotor is the engine and if engine failure
occurs the helicopter will enter an uncontrolled spin to the right
D. Autorotate when over a safe landing area
8. What mounting technique is used to secure
the transmission to the airframe?
A. A rigid mounting technique
B. An isolation mounting technique (it is not rigidly mounted)
C. Rubber mount technique
D. By the drag pylon technique (spike knock)
9. What is the purpose of the pylon support
links?
A. To mount the transmission to the airframe and bear the aircraft’s weight
B. To support the flight control pylon and all related equipment
C. To absorb negative “G”s during descents grater than 2,000 FPM
D. All of the above
10. What effects does a focused pylon mount
have on the transmission?
A. It rises the CG of the transmission. This reduces the transmission’s movement
B. It moves the CG of the transmission 5 inches forward. This reduces the
transmission’s movement
C. It moves the CG of the transmission 5 inches aft. This reduces the
transmission’s movement
D. It lowers the CG of the transmission. This reduces the transmission’s
movement
11. Why is the transmission mounted with a 5º
forward tilt?
A. To provide a more desirable attitude during a hover
B. To provide a more comfortable attitude in forward flight
C. To provide a forward tilt of the main rotor to assist the pilot on forward flight
at airspeeds above 100 KIAS
D. The tilt is 5º aft rather than forward and is to maintain a more comfortable
attitude in forward flight
12. Why is the transmission mounted with a 1.25º
tilt to the left?
A. Because of the position of the cyclic no matter if the pilot is right or left
handed, it is designed for a right handed person. The tilt is built for those left
handed pilot to reduced their constant cyclic input
B. There is no left or right tilt on the main transmission system
C. To help compensate for translating tendency
D. To help compensate for dissymmetry of lift
13. What does a rubber isolation mount provide?
A. It provides for lateral centering and shock absorption
B. It provides for longitudinal centering and shock absorption
C. There is no rubber on the transmission system due to high temperatures
D. A and B
14. What does the drag link’s round pin and the
pylon stop’s square hole provide?
A. Centering of the transmission during installation
B. It provides for fore/aft/side to side movement to the desired limits
C. Stops high vibration frequency coming down the cabin
D. Positive travel limits for the pylon
15. Where does the TRANS OIL TEMP caution
light get its information?
A. From the thermostat installed on the return line going to the oil cooler
B. From the switch located on the transmission oil filter’s housing
C. From the sump of the transmission
D. From a thermo bulb/transducer on the oil filter’s housing
16. Where does the transmission oil temperature
gauge get its information?
A. From the switch located on the transmission oil filter’s housing
B. From the transmission oil sump
C. From a thermo bulb/transducer on the oil filter’s housing
D. From the thermal difference of the transmission oil cooler in and out lines
17. Does the transmission oil cooler have a
bypass capability?
A. The transmission oil cooler has a thermal bypass at temperatures below 61º C.
Above 81º C the bypass valve closes and the oil must be cooled.
B. The transmission oil cooler has a thermal bypass at temperatures below 81º C.
Above 71º C the bypass valve closes and the oil must be cooled.
C. The transmission oil cooler has a thermal bypass at temperatures below 71º C.
Above 81º C the bypass valve closes and the oil must be cooled.
D. The transmission oil cooler has a thermal bypass at temperatures below 61º C.
Above 71º C the bypass valve closes and the oil must be cooled.
18. How is the transmission oil cooled?
A. There is and outer case of the transmission that is filled with water and serves
as heat exchange, from there goes back to the oil cooler
B. A flexible duct/hose assembly transports cooling air from the engine oil cooler
housing to the transmission oil cooler where some air about to cool the
transmission oil is scavenged to cool the hydraulic reservoir
C. It is cooled by ambient air
D. The transmission is splash lubricated and the oil heat is dissipated as it
splashes reducing the heat on the oil
19. How many chip detectors are there on the
transmission oil system?
A. There are 2 transmission chip detectors (sump and pump) on the oil system
B. There are 3 transmission chip detectors (sump, pump, chip pan) on the oil
system
C. There are 4 transmission chip detectors (sump, pump, chip pan, and
freewheeling unit) on the oil system
D. There are 5 transmission chip detectors (sump, pump, chip pan, freewheeling
unit, and the floating gear) on the oil system
20. How many chip detectors are there on the
transmission that can activate the TRANS CHIP caution
light?
A. There are 5 transmission chip detectors (sump, pump, chip pan, freewheeling
unit, and the floating gear) that can activate the TRANS CHIP caution light
B. There are 4 transmission chip detectors (sump, pump, chip pan, and
freewheeling unit) that can activate the TRANS CHIP caution light
C. There are 3 transmission chip detectors (sump, pump, chip pan) that can
activate the TRANS CHIP caution light
D. There are 2 transmission chip detectors (sump and pump) that can activate
the TRANS CHIP caution light
21. Where is the transmission oil level sight glass
located?
A. The sight glass is located on the back side of the transmission
B. The sight glass is located on the front side of the transmission
C. The sight glass is located on the left side of the transmission
D. The sight glass is located on the right side of the transmission
22. What are the three splined areas on the
mast?
A. The mast is splined to the planetary gear case, the floating gear, and the yoke
B. The mast is splined to the planetary gear case, the collar set, and the trunnion
C. The mast is splined to the planetary gear case and the trunnion
D. The mast is splined to the trunnion yoke
23. Why is the mast hallow?
A. It is cheaper than a solid mast
B. High frequency vibrations are less because the vibration travels less through
the air inside the hallow mast
C. A hallow mast is stronger, flexible, and lighter weight
D. The mast is solid for maximum strength and durability
24. How many tail rotor drive shaft segments are
there?
A. There are five tail rotor drive shaft segments. Two are made of steel, and three
are aluminum alloy.
B. There are eight tail rotor drive shaft segments. Two are made of iron, and six
are titanium alloy.
C. There are six tail rotor drive shaft segments. Two are made of steel, and six are
aluminum alloy.
D. There are eight tail rotor drive shaft segments. Two are made of steel, and six
are aluminum alloy.
25. How many tail rotor drive shaft segments are
on top of the tail boom section of the aircraft?
A. Four of the eight tail rotor drive shaft segments are on top of the tail boom
B. Five of the eight tail rotor drive shaft segments are on top of the tail boom
C. Six of the eight tail rotor drive shaft segments are on top of the tail boom
D. Seven of the eight tail rotor drive shaft segments are on top of the tail boom
26. What are the hanger bearing assemblies used
for?
A. Hanger-bearing assemblies are used to support the tail rotor to the tail boom
B. Hanger-bearing assemblies are used in Army helicopter hangar doors to assist
maintainers when opening and closing the doors
C. Hanger-bearing assemblies are used to support the drive shaft and maintain
drive train alignment in its position over the tail boom
D. B and C
27. What is used to connect a drive shaft
segment to another component?
A. Disc couplings are used at every drive shaft connection to provide a strong yet
flexible connection requiring no lubrication
B. Flexible couplings are used at every drive shaft connection to provide a strong
yet flexible connection requiring no lubrication
C. Thompson couplings are used at every drive shaft connection to provide a
strong yet flexible connection requiring no lubrication
D. Thomas couplings are used at every drive shaft connection to provide a strong
yet flexible connection requiring no lubrication
28. Why are the indexing flats in Thomas
couplings alternated?
A. Alternating indexing flats helps with balancing of the drive shaft
B. Alternating indexing flats increases the tensile strength on the flexible
couplings
C. A and B
D. There are no flats on the Thomas couplings
29. What is used to prevent slipping when the last tail
rotor drive shaft segment is attached to the tail rotor
gearbox?
A. A splined adapter is used to prevent slipping
B. A splined trunnion is used to prevent slipping
C. A splined yoke is used to prevent slipping
D. The delta hinge is used to prevent slipping
30. Why are breather type filler caps used on the
tail rotor gearbox?
A. Breather type filler caps are used to let high pressure buildup in the tail
gearbox escape
B. Breather type filler caps are used to prevent “pooling and cavitation”
C. Breather type filler caps are used to provide a mean to service the tail gearbox
without removing the cap, thus preventing foreign object damage (FOD) to
enter the system
D. All of the above
31. What caution light illuminates when ferrous metal
particles complete the circuit on the tail rotor gearbox
chip detector?
A. The T/R particle caution light
B. The T/R complete circuit light
C. The T/R ship caution light
D. The T/R chip caution light
32. What is the rating of the SLAB battery?
A. The SLAB battery voltage is 21 VDC 19 amps
B. The SLAB battery voltage is 24 VDC 17 amps
C. The SLAB battery voltage is 24 VDC 15 amps
D. The SLAB battery voltage is 22 VDC 17 amps
33. Where is the battery switch (BATT/OFF)
located?
A. On the lower console
B. On the upper panel
C. On the battery panel
D. On the overhead console
34. What recharges the battery?
A. The standby generator recharges the battery in flight
B. The N2 tachometer generator recharges the battery in flight
C. The N1 tachometer generator recharges the battery in flight
D. The generator recharges the battery in flight
35. Can the batteries level of charge be checked
during flight?
A. No, there is no selection on the voltmeter selector switch that gives you this
option
B. Only on the IFR version aircraft
C. Yes, the generator must be on as the battery switch is turned off. The drop
observed on the load meter indicates how much of the generator’s load was
devoted to recharging the battery
D. None of the above
36. What indicates a fully charged battery?
A. During pre-flight the SLAB dip stick should be on the full line
B. During pre-flight you should see acid fluid through the sight glass in front of
the SLAB (top line)
C. A drop of less that 1% indicates a fully charge battery
D. A rise of 1% or more indicates a fully charge battery
37. What a drop of 1% or more on the load meter
indicates?
A. It indicates that the battery is still charging
B. Indicates a fully charged battery
C. Indicates the thickness of the gauge
D. Battery life less than 30 minutes
38. What measuring gauge is used to measure
1%?
A. The thickness of a nickel is the measuring gauge for 1%
B. The thickness of a dime is the measuring gauge for 1%
C. The thickness of a primary line is the measuring gauge for 1%
D. The thickness of a secondary line is the measuring gauge for 1%
39. What does the starter component of the
starter/generator do during the starting sequence?
A. The starter component turns the N2 gear train to drive the accessories
necessary for basic engine operation
B. The starter component turns the N1 gear train to drive the accessories
necessary for basic engine operation
C. The starter component turns the power turbine train to drive the accessories
necessary for basic engine operation
D. The starter component turns the Ng gear train to drive the accessories
necessary for basic engine operation
40. What does the generator component of the starter
generator do after the engine is running?
A. The generator provides 24 VDC to the aircraft’s electrical circuits, plus it
maintains charge of the main battery that is in the nose of the helicopter
B. The generator provides 22 VDC to the aircraft’s electrical circuits, plus it
maintains charge of the main battery that is in the nose of the helicopter
C. The generator provides 28 VDC to the aircraft’s electrical circuits, plus it
maintains charge of the main battery that is in the nose of the helicopter
D. The generator provides 26 VDC to the aircraft’s electrical circuits, plus it
maintains charge of the main battery that is in the nose of the helicopter
41. How many buss bars are there in the VFR and
A+ configuration?
A. There are three main buss bars in the VFR and A+ configuration
B. There is one main buss bar in the VFR and A+ configuration
C. There are two main buss bars in the VFR and A+ configuration
D. There are four main buss bars in the VFR and A+ configuration
42. What is the purpose of a bus bar?
A. A buss bar distributes electrical power
B. A buss bar protects circuits from over and under frequencies
C. A buss bar is a device which converts AC current to DC current
D. A buss bar connects to moving parts electrically
43. What is the starter/generator rated at?
A. The starter/generator is rated at 28 VAC and 105 amperes
B. The starter/generator is rated at 28 VDC and 150 amperes
C. The starter/generator is rated at 28 VDC and 105 ohms
D. The starter/generator is rated at 28 VDC and 105 amperes
44. What are the power sources for starting the
VFR and A+ configured aircraft?
A. The 12 volts battery and the CPU
B. The battery in the nose of the aircraft and the auxiliary power unit
C. The starter/generator and the main battery
D. The main battery and standby battery
45. During normal operations, what are the
power sources for the VFR and A+ configuration?
A. The main generator is the primary source with the standby generator as a
backup power source
B. The battery is the primary source with the standby battery as a backup power
source
C. The main generator is the primary source with the battery as a backup power
source
D. The ground power unit (GPU) and the main generator
46. How long will the battery power the electrical
systems after the generator has failed?
A. 30 minutes during the day and 10 minutes during the night
B. There are too many variables to predict battery life in terms of time after
generator failure
C. With all essential electrical equipment on, about 25 minutes
D. With all nonessential electrical equipment off, about 45 minutes
47. How many direct current power sources are
available for normal operations in the IFR
configuration?
A. Two (main generator and standby generator)
B. Two (main battery and standby battery)
C. Three (main generator, standby generator, and the standby battery)
D. Three (main generator, standby generator, and the main battery)
48. What is the rating of the standby generator?
A. 24 VDC and 17 amperes
B. 28 VAC and 15 amperes
C. 28 VDC and 17 amperes
D. 28 VDC and 15 amperes
49. What is the rating of the main battery in the
nose of the helicopter?
A. 28 VDC and 15 amperes
B. 24 VDC and 17 amperes
C. 24 VAC and 17 amperes
D. 28 VAC and 15 amperes
50. What does the Voltage Monitoring System
allow the pilot to monitor?
A. Allows the pilot to monitor generators, batteries, and buss bar voltage
B. Allows the pilot to switch from DC to AC current and to monitor generators,
batteries, and buss bar voltage
C. A and B
D. None of the above
51. What does an inverter do?
A. Sends a signal to the cockpit just before the helicopter reaching an inverted
attitude
B. Converts DC voltage to 115 volts AC to run two elements of the avionics
package
C. Following a Main Generator failure it will keep the battery charge for 30
minutes
D. None of the above
52. What is the rating of the standby battery?
A. 12 VDC
B. 28 VDC
C. 24 VDC
D. 22 VDC
53. How many buss bars are there in the IFR
configuration?
A. There are two buss bars (ESS 1 and ESS 2)
B. There are four buss bars (ESS 1, ESS 2, NON-ESS, and SEMI-ESS)
C. There are three bus bars (ESS 1, ESS 2, and NON-ESS)
D. Only one buss bar (ESS 1)
54. Which buss bar is the most protected?
A. The pilot’s buss bar (ESS 4)
B. The pilot’s buss bar (ESS 3)
C. The pilot’s buss bar (ESS 1)
D. The pilot’s buss bar (ESS 2)
55. Following the main generator’s failure (MAIN
GEN FAIL) what powers the ESS 2 buss bar?
A. The standby battery
B. The main battery
C. A and B
D. None of the above
56. Following a main generator failure (MAIN GEN
FAIL) what powers the NON ESS buss bar?
A. The main battery powers the NON ESS buss bar provided the NON ESS switch
is placed in the NORMAL position; otherwise the NON ESS circuits are shed
from the battery’s load
B. The main battery powers the NON ESS buss bar provided the NON ESS switch
is placed in the MANUAL position; otherwise the NON ESS circuits are shed
from the battery’s load
C. A or B
D. None of the above. In the event of main generator failure the only thing that is
protected is the ESS 1
57. In the IFR configuration, how many power
sources are there for starting?
A. There are three power sources (the main generator, main battery, and the
standby generator) for starting
B. There are two power sources (the main battery, and the auxiliary power unit)
for starting
C. There is one power source (the auxiliary power unit) for starting
D. There is one power source (the main battery) for starting
58. In the event of dual generator failure (MAIN GEN
FAIL and STBY GEN FAIL) and main battery power
becomes depleted, what powers the standby attitude
indicator?
A. The main battery for at least 30 min
B. The back up battery for at least 30 min
C. The standby battery for at least 30 min
D. The secondary battery for at least 30 min
59. What airspeed should be avoided when the
standby generator is powering the ESS 1 buss bar?
A. Airspeeds above 122 KIAS
B. Airspeeds below 40 KIAS
C. Airspeeds above 50 KIAS
D. Airspeeds below 50 KIAS
60. How many layers are there in the TH-67 fuel
cell?
A. The TH-67 fuel cell is a triple layer, crashworthy, bladder based on civilian
aviation standards
B. The TH-67 fuel cell is a double layer, crashworthy, bladder based on civilian
aviation standards
C. The TH-67 fuel cell is single layer, crashworthy, bladder based on civilian
aviation standards
D. . The TH-67 fuel cell is a zero layer, crashworthy, bladder based on civilian
aviation standards
61. What is the fuel cell capacity and how much
of that capacity is consumable?
A. The fuel cell capacity is 90.1 U.S. gallons of which 86.6 gallons are consumable
B. The fuel cell capacity is 84.1 U.S. gallons of which 72.6 gallons are consumable
C. The fuel cell capacity is 82.1 U.S. gallons of which 80.6 gallons are consumable
D. The fuel cell capacity is 84.1 U.S. gallons of which 82.6 gallons are consumable
62. What is the burn rate of the Allison C20J
turbine engine?
A. The burn rate is 22-26 gallons per hour
B. The burn rate is 20-29 gallons per hour
C. The burn rate is 22-29 gallons per hour
D. The burn rate is 21-28 gallons per hour
63. How many boost pumps are there in the
TH-67?
A. 3
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
64. How many fuel quantity-sending units are
there in the fuel cell?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
65. What caution light illuminates with
approximately 12 gallons of fuel remaining?
A. 12 GALLON light
B. Land ASAP light
C. FUEL LOW light
D. All of the above
66. What is the purpose of the fuel sump drain
valve?
A. Provides for the tacking of a fuel sample or defueling the aircraft
B. This valve prevents the grow of micro bacterial organisms in the fuel cell by
venting the tank
C. This valve maintains the fuel cell at the correct fuel level when fueling the
aircraft to prevent a rupture fuel cell during pressure fueling
D. A and C
67. Where is the fuel pressure transducer located
and what does it do?
A. It is located left side of the aircraft above the fuel filer cap. It converts a
pressure head signal of the two boost pumps pressure and sends the higher
reading to the fuel pressure gauge
B. It is located right side of the aircraft above the fuel filer cap. It converts a
pressure head signal of the two boost pumps pressure and sends the higher
reading to the fuel pressure gauge
C. It is located bottom of the aircraft fuel cell. It converts a pressure head signal
of the two boost pumps pressure and sends the higher reading to the fuel
pressure gauge
D. None of the above
68. Where is the fuel shut-off valve located and
what does it do?
A. It is located in the cockpit on the pilot side right below the flight instruments and
it will stop the flow of fuel when placed on the off position guard down
B. It is located at the extreme top-right portion of the fuel cell above the fuel filler cap.
It stops the flow of fuel when the FUEL VALVE ON/OFF switch is turned off
C. It is located on the fuel cell and it will shutoff fuel to the engine in the event of a
crash
D. It is located right side of the aircraft above the fuel filer cap. It converts a pressure
head signal of the two boost pumps pressure and sends the higher reading to the
fuel pressure gauge
E.
69. Where is the airframe fuel filter located and
what does it advise the pilot of?
A. It is located right side of the aircraft above the fuel filer cap. It converts a pressure head signal
of the two boost pumps pressure and sends the higher reading to the fuel pressure gauge
B.
It is located at the extreme top-right portion of the fuel cell above the fuel filler cap. It stops
the flow of fuel when the FUEL VALVE ON/OFF switch is turned off
C. It is located on the right side of the engine compartment on the forward firewall. It advises the
pilot of an “impending” airframe fuel filter bypass and that the fuel will continue to be
delivered to the engine driven fuel pump
D. There is no airframe filters on the TH-67
70. How is the fuel sump drain valve operated?
A. Hydraulically
B. Electrically
C. Pneumatically
D. Mechanically
71. Where is the fuel sump drain valve located?
 Forward of the forward cross tube and centered laterally
 Forward of the aft cross tube and centered laterally
 Right below the #4 tail drive shaft section
 On the bottom right below the filler cap
72. The fuel valve switch must be in which
position for the fuel drain valve to operate?
A. OFF
B. ON
C. STANDBY
D. ALTERNATE
73. When taking a fuel sample from the fuel cell, the
fuel boost pump circuit breakers should be in which
position?
A. ALTERNATE to prevent water and sediment from circulating through the fuel
system
B. STANDBY to prevent water and sediment from circulating through the fuel
system
C. IN to prevent water and sediment from circulating through the fuel system
D. OUT to prevent water and sediment from circulating through the fuel system
74. Where will sediment and water be found in
the fuel sample jar?
A. Bottom of the jar
B. Top of the jar
C. Middle of the jar
D. Water in the bottom and sediment about the middle of the jar
75. Where is the fuel flow transducer located on
the aircraft?
A. It is located right side of the aircraft above the fuel filer cap. It converts a
pressure head signal of the two boost pumps pressure and sends the higher
reading to the fuel pressure gauge
B. It is located on the right side of the engine compartment near the aft firewall
C. It is located on the right side of the engine compartment on the forward
firewall. It advises the pilot of an “impending” airframe fuel filter bypass and
that the fuel will continue to be delivered to the engine driven fuel pump
D. Forward of the aft cross tube and centered laterally
76. When is the fuel low warning indicating
system activated?
A. The fuel low warning system is activated when 35 minutes of fuel remains at
the present consumption rate
B. The fuel low warning system is activated when 40 minutes of fuel remains at
the present consumption rate
C. The fuel low warning system is activated when 45 minutes of fuel remains at
the present consumption rate
D. The fuel low warning system is activated when 55 minutes of fuel remains at
the present consumption rate
77. The A/F FUEL FILTER caution light illuminates
at ____ PSID and bypasses the filter at ___ PSID.
A. 2, 4
B. 2, 4.5
C. 1, 4.5
D. 1, 4
78. How many times is the fuel filtered before it is
ignited?
A. The fuel is filtered three times (A/F fuel filter, engine driven fuel pump, gas
producer fuel control)
B. The fuel is filtered four times (A/F fuel filter, engine driven fuel pump, gas
producer fuel control, and fuel nozzle)
C. The fuel is filtered two times (A/F fuel filter, engine driven fuel pump)
D. The fuel is filtered one time (A/F fuel filter)
79. A dual boost pump failure is indicated by
___________.
A. A FUEL PUMP caution light and a little or no change in fuel pressure
B. A FUEL PUMP caution light and a fuel pressure drop to zero
C. FWD and AFT BOOST PUMP caution lights illuminated
D. Decreased fuel flow on the fuel management control box
80. A single boost pump failure is indicated by
_________.
A. A FUEL PUMP caution light and a fuel pressure drop to zero
B. FWD and AFT BOOST PUMP caution lights illuminated
C. A FUEL PUMP caution light and a little or no change in fuel pressure
D. Decreased fuel flow on the fuel management control box
81. The ____________ responsibilities are to have a
DD Form 365-4 F on board the aircraft when flying;
ensure computations are accurate and correct; and to
ensure the center of gravity remains between the
allowable limits for the entire flight
A. The student pilot
B. Your stick buddy
C. Pilot in command
D. Weight and balance technician
82. Class __ aircraft are those aircraft whose weight
and center of gravity limits can readily be exceeded;
therefore, a high degree of loading control is needed.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
83. Is used to record any permanent changes in basic
weight or center of gravity when the aircraft is
modified.
A. DA Form 2408-13-1
B. DD Form 365-3 Chart C
C. DD Form 365-4 Form F
D. TM 55-1500-342-23
84. Can electronic data sheets be used in lieu of
any of the DD Form 365 series forms?
A. No, only paper copy allowed
B. Yes, provided the information is identical to that required on the DD Form 365
series forms
C. There are no electronic forms of DD Form 365 series forms
D. None of the above
85. Can the aircraft be flown if the aircraft’s basic
weight has been modified?
A. Yes, provided the change in weight is less than 200 pounds
B. Yes, provided the change in weight is less than 100 pounds
C. The aircraft cannot be flown unless the change in basic weight is accounted for
by the proper method
D. The aircraft can be flown but it must be weight and all forms updated prior to
next day flight
86. How are permanent changes in basic weight
accounted for?
A. The pilot in command accounts for permanent changes by making an entry on
DD Form 365-3 Chart C and creating new forms to replace the old forms
B. The weight and balance technician accounts for permanent changes by
making an entry on DD Form 365-3 Chart C and creating new forms to replace
the old forms
C. Manufacturer will come and weight the aircraft for any permanent changes in
basic weight
D. Basic weight SHALL not be change under any circumstances
87. How are temporary changes in basic weight
accounted for?
A. The pilot in command accounts for temporary changes in basic weight by
using the data recorded on DA Form 2408-13-1 or 2408-14-1 to account for the
temporary changes on the forms in the back of the logbook and flight
planning area
B. The weight and balance technician accounts for permanent changes by
making an entry on DD Form 365-3 Chart C and creating new forms to replace
the old forms
C. Manufacturer will come and weight the aircraft for any permanent changes in
basic weight
D. Basic weight SHALL not be change under any circumstances
88. Is define as 90 days or less.
A. Permanent
B. Temporary
C. Basic
D. Tri-monthly
89. What should be done if the aircraft is not returned
to its original condition within the 90 day period?
A. Basic weight SHALL not be change under any circumstances
B. Manufacturer will come and weight the aircraft for any permanent changes in
basic weight
C. The DD Form 365-3 Chart C should be updated to reflect the temporary
change and new DD Forms 365-4 Form F should be created for every typical
mission with two sets of copies to replace the expired copies in the logbook
and the flight planning area
D. The weight and balance technician accounts for permanent changes by
making an entry on DD Form 365-3 Chart C and creating new forms to replace
the old forms
90. How often must all DD Forms 365-4 Form F
be reviewed?
A. They must be reviewed every 45 days (365 days, Ft. Rucker policy)
B. They must be reviewed every 30 days (365 days, Ft. Rucker policy)
C. They must be reviewed every 90 days (365 days, Ft. Rucker policy)
D. They must be reviewed every 120 days (365 days, Ft. Rucker policy)
91. How often must all other forms, besides DD Form
365-4 F, in the file folder be reviewed for currency?
A. 18 months
B. 12 months
C. 9 months
D. 3 months
92. Can a new date and initials in the date block
extend the currency of DD Form 365-4 F?
A. No, only the manufacturer can approve date changes in accordance with FAA
regulations
B. If no changes are required the DD Form 365-4 Form F will be re-dated and
initialed in the date block to certify their currency
C. If the date expires you must create new forms and replace the old forms
D. None of the above
93. When extending the currency of DD Form 365-4
and changes are required one must __________?
A. Nothing given that the date is good for one year (Ft. Rucker policy)
B. No extension permitted
C. Complete a new DD Form 365-4
D. Complete a new DD Form 365-3 Chart C
94. How often should class 2 aircraft be weighed?
A. When last weighing exceeds 3 months
B. When last weighing exceeds 6 months
C. When last weighing exceeds 12 months
D. When last weighing exceeds 24 months
95. How often should class 1 aircraft be weighed?
A. When the last weighing exceeds 36 days
B. When the last weighing exceeds 32 months
C. When the last weighing exceeds 36 months
D. When the last weighing exceeds 36 years
96. What is the definition for basic weight?
A. Basic weight is the weight that is determine by the manufacturer when the
helicopter comes out of the assembly line
B. Is that weight that includes all filled hydraulic and oil systems, trapped and
unusable fuel, and all fixed equipment (this includes the first aid kit and fire
extinguisher)
C. Is the weight of the aircraft minus the weight of the pilot, copilot, and observer
D. None of the above
97. Is that weight that includes basic weight plus crew
weight, crew baggage, steward’s equipment,
emergency equipment, and other equipment that may
be required.
A. Basic weight
B. Standard weight
C. Operating weight
D. Total aircraft weight
98. Is the operating weight plus the weight of take-off
fuel and water injection fluid if applicable.
A. Zero fuel weight
B. Complete aircraft weight
C. Total aircraft weight
D. B or C
99. Is the operating weight (ref. 9) plus
Distribution of Allowable Load, payload (ref. 13).
A. Allowable weight
B. Zero fuel weight
C. Operating weight
D. Full fuel weight
100. Is operating weight plus fuel, cargo, passengers,
ammunitions, bombs, auxiliary fuel tanks, etc.
A. OGE hover take-off
B. IGE hover take-off
C. Take-off gross weight
D. Aircraft weight
101. Take-off weight minus items expended in
flight.
A. Expended weight
B. Landing gross weight
C. Zero fuel weight
D. Operating weight
102. Is defined as the tendency to cause motion
about a point or axis.
A. Spectrum
B. Arm
C. Moment
D. Center of gravity
103. Weight times the arm (WxA=M)
A. Formula for Fulcrum
B. Formula for Center of Gravity
C. Formula for the reference Datum
D. Formula for moment
104. Is the distance from the reference datum plane to
the center of gravity of an item placed in the aircraft.
A. Arm
B. Moment
C. Fulcrum
D. CG
105. Is an imaginary plane perpendicular to the
longitudinal axis at the nose of the aircraft from which
all measurements of arm are taken.
A. Arm
B. Center of gravity
C. Moment
D. Reference Datum
106. What is the formula for CG?
A. TW/TM=CG
B. WxA=M
C. TM/TW=CG
D. FxM=A

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