IV Training Practice

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IV Training Practice
Review Questions
• USP/NF 797 requires that air
sampling for high risk level areas be
performed at least:
• Daily
• Weekly
• Monthly
• Annually
• weekly
• How often must work surfaces in the
ISO Class 7 and 8 area buffer/clean
rooms be cleaned?
• At least daily
• Every shift
• Every 8 hours
• PRN
• At least daily
• Which of the following pharmacy areas
should not contain sinks or floor drains
according to USP/NF 797?
• Workroom
• Anteroom
• Clean room
• All of the above
• Clean room
• The Buffer / Clean rooms should provide
which of the following environments
according to USP/NF 797?
• ISO class 6
• ISO class 7
• ISO class 8
• None of the above
• ISO Class 7
• Which is NOT a compounding example of a
Low-Risk level Sterile Preparation?
• A single transfer from a sterile ampule using
sterile supplies
• Measuring/mixing 2 manufactured products
to prepare an admixture
• Measuring/mixing 3 manufactured products
to prepare a nutritional preparation
• Measuring/mixing 4 manufactured products
for TPN.
• Measuring/mixing 4 products
• Which is a compounding example of a HighRisk level Sterile Preparation?
• Sterile ingredients are measured/mixed in
nonsterile devices before sterilization.
• Dissolving nonsterile bulk drug and nutrient
powders for solutions to be sterilized.
• TPN fluids prepared by automated device
requiring multiple injections to a container.
• All of the above.
• Only A&B
• Only A&B
• How often must High-Risk level
media fill testing be conducted by
compounding personnel?
• At least monthly
• At least annually
• At least semiannually
• At least weekly
• At least semiannually
• Which of the following components
of a syringe must remain sterile?
• Tip
• Barrel
• Inner core of plunger
• All of the above
• Only A and C
• Only A and C
• Which gauge of needle would be
used to draw up a thick substance
such as Albumin?
• 14 gauge
• 18 gauge
• 21 gauge
• 23 gauge
• 14 gauge
• Which of the following components of
the Intravenous Administration Set is
used to calculate the rate at which the
solution is being infused?
• Spike
• Drip chamber
• Roll clamp
• Additive port
• Needle adaptor
• Drip chamber
• The cover protecting the Intravenous
Administration Set spike should not be
removed outside of the hood prior to
inserting it into the IV bag administration
set port because it must remain sterile at
all times.
• True
• False
• True
• When preparing a TPN solution containing
both phosphate and calcium type additives,
_______ should be added first, then squeeze
and agitate the additive port, flush by adding
other drugs in between and then add ______
last.
• Calcium, phosphate
• Phosphate, calcium
• Phosphate, calcium
• There are various sizes of bacteria, but
the average size of bacteria is
• 5 micron
• 13 micron
• 1 micron
• 20 micron
• None of the above
• 1 micron
• Which of the following bacteria are so
light in weight that they can stay
suspended in air and be carried by air
currents?
• Staphylococcus
• Streptococcus
• Proteus
• All of the above
• Only A and B
• Only A and B
• Alcohols have excellent in vitro
germicidal activity against
• Gram-positive vegetative bacteria
• Gram-negative vegetative bacteria
• Multidrug-resistant pathogens
• Mycobacterium tuberculosis
• All of the above
• All of the above
• Put the following gowning and gloving garb in
the correct order, according to USP NF/797.
• Head and/or facial hair covers
• Nonshedding gown
• Shoe cover
• Sterile gloves
• Face mask
• B,D,A,E,C: shoe covers, head/hair covers,
• Face mask, gown, sterile gloves
• The USP NF/797 states that when carts
are being used they can NOT cross over
clean zones unless they are cleaned and
sanitized before returning to the clean
room.
• True
• False
• True
• If the blower on a laminar flow hood or
barrier isolator is turned off, then only
TWO persons can enter the buffer area
for the purposes of turning on the blower
and of sanitizing the work surface for a
minimum of 30 minutes.
• True
• False
• False
• USP NF/797 requires that all surfaces of the
direct compounding environment be first
cleaned with _____, to remove any water
soluble residues, then with ______, and wiped
clean with a nonshedding wipe.
• Water for irrigation, Sterile 70% Isopropyl Alc.
• Sterile water, Purified 70% Isopropyl Alcohol
• Purified Water, Sterile 70% Isopropyl Alcohol
• Spring Water, 90% Isopropyl Alcohol
• Purified Water, Sterile 70% Isopropyl Alcohol
• In which laminar airflow hood is the
HEPA filter located at the back of the
hood facing the preparer?
• Vertical airflow
• Horizontal airflow
• Biological safety cabinet
• Only A and C
• None of the above
• Horizontal airflow
• In which Class of Biological Safety cabinet is
the entire cabinet under negative pressure
where operations are performed through
attached gloves and the cabinet is entirely
enclosed with gas tight construction?
• Class I
• Class II
• Class III
• None of the above
• Class III
• In which type of Biological Safety cabinet
is air not re-circulated, total exhaust?
• Type A
• Type B1
• Type B2
• Type B3
• Type B2
• When working in a horizontal laminar
airflow hood, all manipulations should be
performed at least ___ inches within the
hood to prevent contamination of mixed
air from the room.
•3
•6
•8
• 10
•6
• When working inside the vertical flow
hood, all manipulations should be carried
out at least ___ or more inches above the
work surface area, because of where the
HEPA filter is located.
•3
•6
•8
• 10
•3
• When using a contaminant barrier
isolator to prepare cytotoxic or
hazardous drugs, it should be under
______ pressure.
• Positive
• Negative
• Negative
• Which of the following drugs are used to treat
cancer by substituting in or blocking the use of
essential nutrients and enzymes?
• Mitotic Inhibitors
• Alkylating Agents
• Antimetabolites
• None of the above
• Antimetabolites
• Which of the following drugs are considered
the first anticancer drugs and work by binding
to human DNA cells to stop their duplicating?
• Mitotic Inhibitors
• Alkylating Agents
• Antimetabolites
• None of the above
• Alkylating Agents
• Although Vinblastine and Vincristine can both
be used to treat solid tumors, lymphomas,
and Hodgkins disease, only one of these can
be used to treat Leukemia. Which is it?
• Vinblastine
• Vincristine
• Oncovin
• Both A and C
• Both B and C
• Both B and C
• Which of the following cancer drugs can
be used to treat testicular cancer?
• Ifosfamide
• Etoposide
• Dactinomycin
• All of the above
• All of the above
• Which of the following cancer drugs can
be used to treat head, neck and lung
cancer?
• Mitomycin
• Methotrexate
• Mithracin
• All of the above
• Only A and B
• Only A and B
• Match the cancer drugs with the correct cell
cycle specific agent they act upon.
• Cytarabine
• Bleomycin
• Floxuridine
• Vinblastine
• A. G1 Phase, S Phase
• B. G2 Phase, M Phase
• C. M Phase
• D. S Phase
• D, B, A, C
• Which of the following cytotoxic agents is
considered a vascular irritant, not a
vesicant?
• Mitomycin
• Mitoxantrone HCl
• Mechlorethamine HCl
• All of the above are vascular irritants.
• None of the above.
• Mitoxantrone HCl
• OSHA recommends cleaning ____ time(s)
using a detergent solution followed by
water when cleaning up a small
hazardous drug spill.
• One
• Two
• Three
• Four
• Three
• Which of the following Cytotoxic drugs
must be filtered?
• Alemtuzumab
• Asparaginase
• Aldesleukin Interleukin-2
• Dactinomycin
• Daunorubian Citrate Liposomal
• Alemtuzumab
• Which of the following solutions should
Filgrastim (Neupogen) be mixed in?
• NS
• D5W
• Sterile Water
• All of the above
• D5W
• Which of the following Cytotoxic agents
should be mixed in a glass container?
• Docetaxel
• Doxorubicin
• Dacarbazine
• Dexrazoxane
• Docetaxel
• Which of the following cytotoxic agents
should be diluted with NaCl instead of
D5W?
• Mechlorethamine
• Mitomycin
• Cladridine
• All of the above
• Only A and B
• All of the above
• The USP NF/797 requires daily monitoring and
documentation of refrigerators to ensure that
the temperature remains between ______
degrees Celsius.
• 2 to 8
• 4 to 10
• 6 to 12
• 8 to 14
• 10 to 16
• 2 to 8
•
•
•
•
•
•
The USP defines room temperature as ©
8 to 15
15 to 20
20 to 25
25 to 30
30 to 40
• 20 to 25
• The USP 797 requires that any
compounded sterile preparation which is
exposed to temperatures exceeding 40
degrees Celsius for more than 4 hours
should be discarded unless appropriate
documentation or direct assay can
confirm the preparation is stable.
• True
• False
• True
• The USP 797 requires that labeling for IV
preparations which are shipped off-site
contain which of the following?
• Clearly readable beyond use dates
• Storage instructions
• Instructions for disposal of out-of-date units
• All of the above are required.
• Only A and B are required.
• All of the above are required.
• Which of the following IV Admixtures
does NOT require filter tubing when
dispensing?
• Albumin
• Amiodarone
• Fat Emulsion
• Mannitol
• Sodium Nitroprusside
• Sodium Nitroprusside
• Which of the following IV admixtures
should NOT be refrigerated when
dispensing?
• Acyclovir
• Dopamine
• Metronidazole
• All of the above
• Only A and C
• All of the above
• Which of the following IV admixtures
should be mixed in glass containers when
dispensing?
• Hydrochloric Acid
• Nitroglycerin
• Amiodarone if infusion > 2 hours
• All of the above
• Only A and B
• All of the above
• Which of the following injectables MUST
be stored in the refrigerator?
• Amphoteracin B
• Atenolol
• Filgrastim
• All of the above must be refrigerated.
• Only A and C
• Only A and C
• Which of the following injectables should
NOT be stored in the refrigerator?
• Vecuronium Bromide
• Ganciclovir Powder
• Polymixin B Sulfate
• All of the above
• Only B and C
• All of the above
• The USP 797 divides contamination
into 4 major categories.
• True
• False
• False; just 3 categories
• Which of these would work for the
sterilization AND depyrogenation
process?
• Temp 160° Celsius for 120-180 minutes
• Temp 170° Celsius for 90-120 minutes
• Temp 180° Celsius for 45-60 minutes
• Temp 230° Celsius for 60-90 minutes
• Temp 230° Celsius for 60-90 minutes
• The Texas State Board of Pharmacy does NOT
require which of these on the “Master
Formulation Worksheet” for batched prepared
sterile preparations.
• Formula, components, compounding
directions
• Pharmacist and PT names / signatures
• Specific equipment used and a sample label
• Evaluation and testing requirements
• Sterilization methods and storage req.
• Pharmacist and PT names / signatures
Which of the following is NOT required on
the label of a sterile pharmaceutical
product by the Texas State Board of
Pharmacy?
Patient birth date
Patient name
Patient location
Patient identification
Patient birth date
• Which of the following is NOT required by the
USP 797 on labels and accessory labels for all
compounded sterile preparations shipped offsite by a pharmacy?
• Clearly readable beyond-use dates
• Storage instructions
• Instructions for contacting the physician in
case of emergency
• Instructions for disposal of out-of-date units
• Instructions for contacting the physician
• Using multiple ampules to be transferred
into one final sterile container is an
example of:
• Immediate Use Risk Level
• Low Risk Level
• Medium Risk Level
• None of the Above
• Medium Risk Level
• Only a single transfer from a sterile vial
utilizing sterile supplies is an example of
• Immediate Use Risk Level
• Low Risk Level
• Medium Risk Level
• High Risk Level
• None of the Above
• Low Risk Level
• Emergency Room Treatments, to be used
within 1 hour, are an example of
• Immediate Use Risk Level
• Low Risk Level
• Medium Risk Level
• High Risk Level
• None of the Above
• Immediate Use Risk Level
• Sterile ingredients measured /mixed with
nonsterile devices before sterilization is
performed is an example of
• Immediate Use Risk Level
• Low Risk Level
• Medium Risk Level
• High Risk Level
• None of the above
• High Risk Level
• How many grams of Mannitol are needed to
prepare 500 grams of a 10% (w/w) solution in
water?
• You need to prepare a 20% viscous Lidocaine
solution. How many grams of Lidocaine will
need to be dissolved in 500 ml of water to
make this solution?
• What is the percentage strength of a solution
containing Benadryl 50 gm in 473 ml of liquid?
• How many grams of Mannitol will you need to
prepare 1 liter of a 20% solution?
• How many grams of Epinephrine are needed
to prepare 500 ml of a 0.01% Epinephrine
solution?
• In order to prepare 1 liter of 5%
Hydrochloric Acid solution, how many
ml’s of Hydrochloric Acid are required?
• For the last question, how many ml’s of sterile
water should be added to the Hydrochloric
acid solution to prepare the 1 liter solution?
• A 500 ml bag of D5NS infusing at 32 ml/hour
will last for how many hours?
• For the last question, how many bags will
need to be sent in a 24 hour period?
• You have Pitocin 40 units in D5W 500 ml
to be infused over 4 hours. What is the
rate in ml/hr the patient is receiving the
Pitocin?
• Order: D5LR infusing at 80 ml/hr. How many
ml’s will be infused at the end of 24 hours?
• What is the rate of infusion of Dopamine 250
mg in D5W 500 ml to be infused over 4 hours?

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