1st Semester Exam in High School Biology

1st Semester Exam in High
School Biology
Subject: 1st Semester Exam in High School Biology
Duration : 60 minutes
Total Marks: 71
Total questions: 50
Write your name on the work you hand in.
Write in dark blue or black pen in the space provided.
You may use a soft pencil for any diagrams, graphs or rough working.
You may not use your dictionary or cellphone during the test.
You may use a dedicated calculator only.
You may not leave the test room after the exam has started.
You must stay in the test room for the entire 60 minutes, no leaving early.
Answer all questions.
Write your answers for multiple choice answers in the in the box
you see that is on the left
hand side of the question.
For free response questions, write your answer in the line provided.
Each question is worth 1 point, except questions 42 and 43 which are worth 5 points each.
When you finish, check your work carefully, and remain silent until your paper is collected. If you do talk
to another student during the exam your test will be given a score of zero.
No cell phones or headphones are permitted to be used.
Follow the proctor’s instruction. If you get two warnings, you will not be able to continue writing your
1. Substances that cannot be broken down into
simpler substances by ordinary chemical
A. compounds
B. covalently bonded atoms
C. mixtures
d. molecules
E. elements
2. Cohesion of water molecules results
A. attraction between water and other
B. hydrogen bonding between water
C. arrested adhesion
D. covalent bonding
E. capillary action
3. The symbol 6C stands for
A. calcium with 6 electrons
B. carbon with 6 protons
C. carbon with 3 protons and three neutrons
D. calcium with 3 protons and 3 electrons
E. an isotope of carbon
4. Many land plants store energy in starch.
When energy is needed, the starch
molecules can be broken down quickly. This
chemical reaction produces which of the
amino acids
RNA chains
5. Which of the following is a function of a
A. forms the cell wall
B. forms the cell membrane
C. gene expression
D. regulates enzymes
6. There are some types of fire that should NOT be
extinguished by pouring water over the flames.
Part 1 Identify one type of fire that should not be
extinguished with water.
Use baking soda or a Class B fire extinguisher if
the fire is caused by grease or fat.
Use a Class C fire extinguisher or baking soda to put out an electrical fire. You can also
use a Class ABC fire extinguisher, which is designed to handle electrical, grease, fat,
wood, paper or cloth.
Part 2 Explain why it is dangerous to pour water
on the type of fire you identified.
Answers may vary depending on the etiology of the combustion.
7. The atomic nucleus contains
A. prodons
B. protons and neutrons
C. electrons and positrons
E. isotopes
8. The Golgi complex functions to
A. modify Nucleic Acids
B. process & packages proteins
C. sort molecules & ions
D. break down large carbohydrates
9. Which of the following cells contain plastids?
A. animal
B. plant
C. some eukaryotic
D. some prokaryotic
E. algae
10. The cell theory states that
A. new cells come from pre-existing cells
B. all cells are descended from ancient cells
C. cell divides
D. living things are composed of cells
E. cells contain genetic material
11. Chloroplast and mitochondria both
A. are found in only in plant cells
B. have three membranes
C. contain DNA
D. are found in only in animal cells
12. Ribosomal RNA is synthesized in the
A. cytoplasm
B. nuclear matrix
C. cristae
D. mitochondria
E. nucleolus
13. Mendels “ factors”
A. are haploid in gametes
B. interact in gametes
C. segregate into separate gametes
D. are genes
E. affect flower color, but not seed color
14. Refer to the diagram. What
process occurs at Y ?
A. mitosis I
B. mitosis II
C. meiosis I
D. meiosis II
15. What kind of cells most likely result from
uncontrolled growth due to mutations in
genes that control the cell cycle?
A. nerve cells
B. bone cells
C. cancer cells
D. cardiac cells
14 How many daughter cells result from a
parent cell in meiosis?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Use the chart to help you answer the following 4
15. What BEST completes the chart at I?
A. enzyme
B. amino acids
C. monomer
D. polymer
16. Which statement BEST describes the function of
nucleic acids (IV)?
A. stores genetic information and helps to make proteins
B. increases the rate of chemical reactions
C. stimulates metabolism in all body cells
D. activates secretion of the body's hormones
17. What molecule is described in column III?
A. phosphates
B. lipids
C. polysaccharides
D. minerals
18. Complete the chart at II.
A. polysaccharides
B. biomolecules
C. amino acids
D. lipids
19. In guinea pigs, the allele for rough coat (R) is
dominant over the allele for smooth coat (r). A
heterozygous guinea pig and a homozygous
recessive guinea pig are mated. Which of the
following would be the phenotypes of the
A. all rough coat
B. all smooth coat
C. 2 rough coat and 2 smooth coat
D. 3 rough coat and 1 smooth coat
20. Which of the following do plant cells have
that animal cells do not?
A. chloroplasts and cell walls
B. vacuoles and cell membranes
C. chloroplasts and mitochondria
D. cell walls and cell membranes
Plant Cell
Animal Cell
21. The earliest fossils of Homo sapiens with
modern anatomical features appear no earlier
A. 1,000 yrs ago
B. 10,000 yrs ago
C. 200,000 yrs ago
D. 5,000 BC
E. recorded human history
22. What additional characteristic (X) belongs in
the central section of the Venn diagram?
A. mitochondrion
(right side view)
B. chloroplast
C. ribosome
D. endoplasmic reticulum
23. Which organism belongs in Section I of the
Venn diagram?
24. What is the purpose of ATP in both cellular
respiration and photosynthesis?
A. to breakdown glucose to release energy
B. to transfer energy from one molecule to
C. to work as an enzyme
D. to absorb electrons from water
25. The fossil record
A. supports contemporary theories of
B. is largely fabricated
C. supports evolution of plants and animals,
but does not support evolution of humans
D. is consistent with Darwin’s theories
E. supports Lamarck’s theory of evolution
Matching for organelles and their functions. Write the correct
letter in the box.
Nucleus A.Provide movement
Nucleolus B. Maintains shape, water intake, and protection for the cell
Chloroplast C.Synthesize proteins
Mitochondria - D.Packaging center for proteins
Endoplasmic Reticulum E.Pathway for transport of materials in cells
Ribosomes F.Site of photosynthesis
Lysosome G.contains digestive enzymes
Golgi Apparatus -H.Makes energy
Vacuole I.Storage, disposal of waste
Plasma Membrane - J.Assist in cell division
Cell Wall K.Creates ribosomes
Cilia/Flagella - L.Contains DNA, regulates cell processes
Centrioles M. Selectively permeable membrane that allows the passage of
materials in and out of the cell
Matching for organelles and their functions. Write the correct
letter in the box.
Nucleus L.Contains DNA, regulates cell processes
Nucleolus B. Maintains shape, water intake, and protection for the cell
Chloroplast F.Site of photosynthesis
Mitochondria - H.Makes energy
Endoplasmic Reticulum E.Pathway for transport of materials in cells
Ribosomes C.Synthesize proteins
Lysosome G.contains digestive enzymes
Golgi Apparatus -D.Packaging center for proteins
Vacuole I.Storage, disposal of waste
Plasma Membrane - M. Selectively permeable membrane that allows the passage of
materials in and out of the cell
Cell Wall K.Creates ribosomes
Cilia/Flagella - A.Provide movement
Centrioles J.Assist in cell division
27. The first hominid that migrated to Europe
and Asia is
A. H. habilis
B. H. erectus
C. H. sapiens
D. australopithecines
E. “Lucy” and her descendants
28. The Neanderthal man appeared about
_____ years ago.
A. 800,000
C. 30,000
D. 1 million
E. 2 million
29. Based on molecular similarities and other
characteristics, it is thought that the nearest
living relative of the human is the
A. gorilla
B. monkey
C. gibbon
D. chimpanzee
E. ape
30. A possible answer to a question is a
A. Probability
B. Hypothesis
Data stream
D. Investigation and observation
31. The organisms
Felis catus
Felis silvestris
do NOT belong to the same—
A. class.
B. family.
C. genus.
D. species.
32. What factors do the Kingdoms Protista,
Plantae, Fungi, and Animalia have in
A. They are all eukaryotes.
B. They are all photosynthetic organisms.
C. They are all multicellular organisms.
D. They are all prokaryotes.
33. Which Kingdom contains organisms that
have cell walls of chitin and cannot
A. Protista
B. Animalia
C. Fungi
D. Plantae
34. What evidence does not support the
evolution of chloroplasts and mitochondria
from prokaryotic cells?
A. double membranes of the organelles
B. similar methods of reproduction
C. fossil record
D. presence of circular DNA
35. According to the endosymbiotic theory, what
type of cell will #3 become?
A. primitive animal cell
B. primitive plant cell
C. primitive fungi cell
D. primitive bacteria
36. Which statement applies to meiosis, but not
A. Daughter cells are genetically identical to
parent cells.
B. Daughter cells are genetically different from
parent cells.
C. The number of chromosomes in daughter
cells is the same as the number in the parent
D. The number of chromosomes in daughter
cells is more than in parent cells.
Read the following four paragraphs to answer
questions 37 to 40.
• I. Aristotle was an ancient Greek philosopher
living in the 4th century BC. In his book, The
History of Animals, he acknowledged that
while many animals reproduced more of their
own kind, other life—especially insects—
seemed to spring from rotting flesh or plant
matter. Yet, even more new life spontaneously
generated from within animal organs or their
secretions. Aristotle also believed that heat
and air within animals combined with water
and other liquids, resulted in life.
• II. In the 1600s, Italian physician Francesco
Redi placed meats of various kinds in jars. He
covered half the jars with fine mesh and left
the other jars exposed to flies. Eventually,
maggots were observed on the meat in the
exposed jars, but none in the gauze covered
jars. To continue his investigation, Redi
captured maggots, allowed them to mature,
and placed them in open jars and gauze
covered jars with meat. No new flies came
from the sealed jars.
III. John Turberville Needham, a 1700 English
botanist, tested the theory of spontaneous
generation by briefly boiling solutions and
allowing them to cool completely in open
containers. He then put the broth into sealed
containers, all of which showed evidence of
microbial growth days after. Critics later
determined that Needham did not boil the
broth sufficiently to sterilize it before exposing
it to air, nor did he protect one flask from
exposure to the air.
• IV. The Italian priest, Lazzaro Spallanzani,
disagreed with the idea of spontaneous
generation and suspected that microbes were
airborne and thus could be carried anywhere.
His experiments involved boiling meat
solutions and sealing the solutions in glass
containers before they could be exposed to
air. No growth was observed in the cultures.
V. Louis Pasteur, a 19th century French scientist,
investigated the theory of spontaneous
generation by adding beef broth to flasks, boiling
the broth in the flasks to sterilize it, and exposing
both flasks to air. Pasteur modified one flask by
heating the glass neck and severely bending it to
prevent microbes in the air from contaminating
the broth. The other flask remained opened and
exposed. Days later, the broth in the open flask
was cloudy, leading Pasteur to conclude it was full
of life, while broth in the swannecked flask
showed no signs of life.
37. Which scientists' ideas and investigations
support the Cell Theory?
A. Aristotle and Spallanzani
B. Redi and Pasteur
C. Aristotle, Redi, and Pasteur
D. only Pasteur
38. According to the information in the passage,
which scientist’s investigation is the BEST
example of experimental design?
A. Aristotle
B. Needham
C. Spallanzani
D. Pasteur
39 What was the control in Pasteur’s
A. sterile broth in the swanneck flask
B. sterile broth in the open flask
C. nonheated broth in the open flask
D. nonheated broth in the swanneck flask
40. What was unique about Pasteur’s experiment?
A. heated the broth in an attempt to sterilize it
from microorganisms
B. exposed both the experimental and control
groups to air
C. redesigned one flask to prevent contamination
by microbes from the air
D. compromised his results by limiting the number
of trials
41. What technique is BEST for matching
evidence left at a crime scene with a suspect’s
nasal swab?
A. gene therapy
B. recombining DNA
C. genetic engineering
D. DNA fingerprinting
42. Show a Punnett square to demonstrate how
two individuals with Type A blood can have a
child with Type O blood.
43. Show a cross between a person with Type AB
blood and a person with Type O blood. What
is the genotypic and phenotypic probability of
this cross?
AB = 50%
A= 50%
44. Refer to the diagram. Which of the following
represents the genotype of offspring Ttrr?
A. heterozygous tall, homozygous wrinkled
B. heterozygous short, homozygous wrinkled
C. heterozygous short, homozygous round
D. homozygous tall, homozygous wrinkled
45. Refer to the diagram. What is the
appearance of offspring X?
A. tall, round
B. short, wrinkled
C. short, round
D. tall, wrinkled
46. Refer to the diagram. What is the correct
genetic combination of offspring X?
A. Tr
B. Tr x Tr
C. TTrr
D. TtRr
47. Refer to the diagram. What are the
genotypes of the parents in this cross?
A. TTRr and ttRr
B. TtRr and TtRr
C. TTrr and TtRr
D. TTRr and TtRr
48. Scientists discover a new organism. The
organism is autotrophic, with membrane
bound organelles. To which of these kingdoms
does this organism most likely belong?
A. Archaebacteria
B. Eubacteria
C. Animalia
D. Protista
49. The Kingdom Monera once included which
of the following kingdoms known today?
A. Protista
B. Animalia
C. Archaebacteria
D. Plantae
50. Archaebacteria includes which of the
following extremophiles?
A. methanogens
B. thermophiles
C. halophiles
D. all of the above

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